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Donald Crawford
Posted on 7 Apr 2005 5:50 pm

The question is dishonestly slanted. Turkish Cypriot land in the south has been expropriated, and there now many known cases of their land having been sold to private developers. To cite one side, while implying that only the north has ‘misappropriated’ — itself a slanted term — misleads and is intended to mislead.

As for the answer, it is a pity that the FCO has fallen for Greek Cypriot propaganda when it now cites the legal risk of being taken to court in the south. There is one case only, which has not been finally decided, and which would be thrown out, and will be thrown out, if it ever gets into a UK forum. The FCO knows that the aim is propaganda, but why on earth is it so weakly being party to that?

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