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To ask Her Majesty's Government, further to the answer by Lord Callanan on 27 February (HL Deb, col 242) that the legislation no longer exists on the UK statute book to hold European Parliament elections, what is the statutory basis for this.
Does the Minister not recognise that there is a good deal of confusion about the state of the statutory instruments being brought forward on 29 March? He has answered that question, but could he perhaps correct the impression that he and his noble and learned friend Lord Keen gave the House? The legislation we have which would enable a European election to take place here on 23 May has not...
My Lords, the Attorney-General stated: “A unilateral declaration by one party to a bilateral agreement constitutes an authentic interpretation of the treaty if it is accepted by the other party”. Does he not find that a little odd? It would not then be a unilateral statement at all but a joint statement. On what authority did the Attorney-General say that the EU has agreed to the UK...
Entered the House of Lords on 27 June 2001
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