Do I understand my hon. Friend to say that he is seeking absolute clarity on this point? I am interested by a letter I received from the Campaign for Freedom of Information by e-mail this morning. It says:
“If correspondence containing personal data about identifiable constituents have been released then, on the face of it, this information is already exempt under section 40(2).”
It seems that even there, there is a qualification. Is my hon. Friend seeking to remove that doubt from the provisions?