Brexit: Northern Ireland Backstop - Question

Part of the debate – in the House of Lords at 3:00 pm on 19th February 2019.

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Photo of Lord Wallace of Saltaire Lord Wallace of Saltaire Liberal Democrat Lords Spokesperson (Cabinet Office) 3:00 pm, 19th February 2019

My Lords, the noble Baroness repeats phrase that the Prime Minister used last week, of looking for a,

“legally binding unilateral exit clause”.—[Official Report, Commons, 12/2/19; col. 731.]

I saw in a brief this morning an alternative phrase—it seemed nonsensical—which is “a joint interpretative document”. Since I understand that any legally binding agreement has to be legally binding on both sides, a unilateral clause—which is not, therefore, legally binding on both sides—seems incompatible with something that is legally binding. Can the noble Baroness explain this paradox?