Only a few days to go: We’re raising £25,000 to keep TheyWorkForYou running and make sure people across the UK can hold their elected representatives to account.Donate to our crowdfunder
I apologise for intervening again and am grateful to the noble Lord for giving way. Does he not agree that there is a crucial distinction between motive and intention? If I have a loaded pistol and I point it at someone's head and pull the trigger, it is quite clear that I intend to kill that person. The motive is the reason why I want to do that. It might be, for instance, that it is in self-defence. Therefore, if one takes the wording of a government amendment and alters it from "purpose" to "intention", does that not mean that it will become impossible to satisfy that test?