My Lords, with the leave of the House, may I ask the noble Lord to enlarge a little on what he said about Amendment No. 1?
He seemed to imply that the word "induced" means that the subsection covers people who do not understand what it is they are being induced to do. I do not understand that. We all know what "induced" means. The grounds on which subsection (4)(i) and (ii) rely do not include what the noble Lord has said. They do not include the possibility that the person does not understand what they are being induced to do. I think that it is stretching language a little far to say that the clause actually says that. Is the noble Lord certain of that? If he is not, will he make certain before the Bill goes back to the House of Commons?