Part of Clause 39 – in the House of Commons at 11:45 pm on 9 April 1984.
Does the Solicitor-General agree that the purpose to which he referred would have to be proved as part of the civil action? Does he further agree that in none of the cases on record—he may correct me on this—was it proved that the purpose was to set out deliberately to damage the company? If there is no case law to support the Solicitor-General, why is he basing his argument so heavily on the conclusion that he appears to be drawing?