What is the position if a mortgagee gives notice of repayment of his mortgage and the house happens to be occupied by someone protected by the Bill? The time runs out and the mortgagor is unable to pay because he is unable to get possession of the property and sell it. What happens? The mortgagee is entitled to take possession of the property. Is he the owner of the property under the Bill and, therefore, prevented by Clause 1(3) from getting possession by means other than going to the court? I do not know from the wording of the Bill, and I am sure that the hon. Gentleman does not know either. I want this cleared up. My Clause would have cleared up the point in a perfectly simple manner.