Is it not the case that in a subsequent Amendment the hon. Gentleman gives the local authority power to object as any person may object? Does this not suggest that he is giving the S.S.H.A. power to act in ways to which the local authority may object? Is not the whole basis of his argument that the local authorities may not want to do something or that they are leaving it to the S.S.H.A.? But, on the other hand, he is giving them power to object, which may mean that they may not wish this to be done at all?