Part of the debate – in the House of Commons at 12:00 am on 17 June 1947.
Can the Chancellor of the Exchequer say why it is that a private company is able to carry out this transaction when the Corporations are not able to do so, in spite of the fact that dollars have to be consumed in the long run? Is it due to the fact that there is a close identity between this company and Middle East oil interests?