Water Bill [HL]
Lord Livsey of Talgarth (Liberal Democrat)
My Lords, in general, we agree with the principle of the amendment. However, I should be grateful if in summing up the noble Baroness could explain subsection (9), which states:
"The percentage given by this subsection is the proportion (expressed as a percentage) of the relevant undertakers who have given notice of objection, weighted according to their market share in such manner as may be prescribed".
Does that place the larger companies at an unfair advantage? If so, why does the mover of the amendment wish to create inequality of this kind? Is not there a case for treating all companies in an equal way, or is there some agenda here that has put subsection (9) into this? I merely seek information and an explanation which perhaps the noble Baroness will address when she has had a look at it.